UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 22 to December 28, 2024

Published on: December 29, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 22 to December 28, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 22 to December 28, 2024

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Brush up your current affairs knowledge with this week's top 15 questions and consolidate your UPSC-CSE preparation. Find answers along with explanations.

The First IAS Institute UPSC Essentials brings to you the December Current Affairs. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at firstias.co.in

QUESTION 1

Consider the following statements:

1. The human brain processes thought at a much faster rate than the rate of information transmitted over the Internet.

2. The human brain processes sensory information from sight, smell, and sound at a rate that is approximately 100,000,000 times faster than cognition.

Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— According to a new study, the human brain processes thoughts more slowly than information supplied via the Internet. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— While the human brain’s information flow rate is only 10 bits per second (bps), a typical wi-fi connection handles 50 bps. A single bit is the smallest unit of data that a computer can process and store.

— The study, ‘The terrible slowness of being: Why do we live at 10 bits/s?’ was published in the journal Neurone earlier this month. To conduct the investigation, the researchers looked at data on human behaviors such as reading, writing, etc.

— According to the researchers, the human brain processes sensory information from sight, smell, and sound at a rate that is approximately 100,000,000 times faster than cognition. In other words, while humans can only process one idea at a time, their sensory systems—and computers—process thousands of bits of information simultaneously. “Psychological science has not acknowledged this big conflict,” Meister told The New York Times. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Regarding the interactive art, consider the following statements:

1. It is a type of art that requires the intervention of viewers — they can control or dictate the course of artwork.

2. The roots of interactive art go back to the early 20th Century when surrealist artists such as Salvador Dali and Joan Miro challenged conventional notions of art.

3. This art cannot be done through artificial intelligence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— It was highlighted during the recent Serendipity Arts Festival in Goa, where the exhibition “Multiplay,” coordinated by artist couple Sumir Tagra and Jiten Thukral, featured works that fell within the genre, “blurring the conventional boundaries of the artist and audience.”

— Interactive art is a type of art that requires the intervention of viewers — they can control or dictate the course of artwork. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The method converts static artworks into dynamic compositions that react to live inputs or activities. This could be accomplished through a variety of methods, including manual intervention, the use of sensors, processing software, and Artificial Intelligence, among others. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The origins of interactive art may be traced back to the early twentieth century when surrealist painters like Salvador Dali and Joan Miro challenged traditional concepts of art. Dadaists such as Marcel Duchamp created “readymades” in which commonplace objects such as bicycle wheels and wine bottle racks were elevated to the status of artwork. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 3

The port of Hodeida was recently in the news. It is located in:

(a) Israel

(b) Oman

(c) Yemen

(d) Sri Lanka

Explanation

— Israel targeted many locations in Yemen, including Sana’a’s airport, which hosted a high-level United Nations delegation led by World Health Organisation Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus.

— Last week, Israel began directly attacking the Houthi (Ansar Allah) armed organization in Yemen, broadening its ongoing war against Iran and the so-called “axis of resistance”.

— Israeli warplanes have already carried out such long-distance missions, flying more than 2,000 kilometers during Operation Long Arm in response to a Houthi drone attack in July, which interrupted humanitarian operations at Yemen’s Hodeida port.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements about the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC):

1. It is a quasi-judicial commission in India.

2. It was set up in 2018 under the Consumer Protection Act of 2013.

3. The head office of the NCDRC is situated in Mumbai.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— If you have a credit card or are considering getting one, a new Supreme Court decision has given you another reason to think twice before missing a payment. Last Monday, a bench of Justices Bela M Trivedi and Satish Chandra Sharma ruled that banks’ interest rates could not be challenged as an “unfair trade practice”.

— The Supreme Court reversed a 2008 ruling by the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) that barred banks from charging interest rates higher than 30% per year. The Supreme Court also ruled that only the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can limit interest rates.

— The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) of India is a quasi-judicial commission established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Its headquarters is situated in New Delhi. Following Rule 3(12)(a) of the Tribunal (Conditions of Service) Rules, 2021, the Commission is presided over by a sitting or retired Judge of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India or a sitting or retired Chief Justice of an Hon’ble High Court. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 5

Concerning the Sea otters, consider the following statements:

1. They were mainly hunted for their thick, soft fur.

2. They are considered the “fully protected mammal”.

3. The sea otter population is not affected by the oil spills.

4. They rely on a rapid metabolism to stay warm in chilly oceans.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— According to a new study, sea otters are devouring thousands of green crabs, an invasive species native to Europe, at the Elkhorn Slough National Estuarine Research Reserve in California, helping to save the West Coast’s environment.

— The journal Biological Invasions published the article, ‘Recovering population of the southern sea otter controls a worldwide marine invader’.

— According to a National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Fisheries report, green crabs initially arrived in North America in the 1800s, most likely by merchant ships from Europe carrying ballast water (fresh or saltwater carried in the ballast tanks and cargo holds of ships). They also reached the West Coast in ballast water.

— Sea otters are a rare species because humans overhunted them in the 18th and 19th centuries. They were hunted mostly for their thick, silky fur. California only classified them as a “fully protected mammal” in 1913, but this did not prevent them from being hunted. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Oil leaks further harmed the sea otter population, limiting their capacity to stay warm. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Sea otters are a “super voracious predator” because, unlike most marine animals, they rely on a fast metabolism to stay warm in cold environments. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements:

1. The indexes of prices paid (IPP) for farmers have decreased from 2004-05 to 2022-23.

2. The indexes of prices received (IPR) for agricultural labourers have increased from 2004-05 to 2022-23.

3. The terms of trade for farmers have decreased from 2004-05 to 2022-23.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Agriculture Ministry compiles indexes of the prices received (IPR) by farmers for the produce they sell as well as the prices paid (IPP) for the products bought by them.

— The latter includes final consumption items (from purchased foods such as sugar, salt, edible oil, biscuits, bread, and tea, to clothing, soap, toothpaste, medicines, health and education, mobile services, two-wheelers, and gold jewelry), intermediate inputs (seed, fertilizer, crop protection chemicals, hired labor, diesel, irrigation charges, livestock feed, and interest on loans), and capital goods (tractors, farm equipment, electric motor/diesel pumps, cement, bricks, steel

— The IPRs and IPPs were created by using the triennium ending 2011-12 (2009-10, 2010-11, and 2011-12) as the baseline or reference point against which prices are compared over time.

— The indexes of prices paid (IPP) for farmers have increased from 2004-05 to 2022-23. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The indexes of prices received (IPR) for agricultural laborers have increased from 2004-05 to 2022-23. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The terms of trade for farmers have increased from 2004-05 to 2022-23. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Concerning the Forest Rights Act, consider the following statements:

1. It was enacted during the first term of Manmohan Singh.

2. This Act empowered tribal and forest-dwelling communities by recognizing their historical rights over forest land and forest resources.

3. The act does not encompass the Community Rights as Grazing.

4. The Gram Sabha is an empowered body under the Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

— Manmohan Singh, an economist turned prime minister, led a quickly rising India for ten years, and his term was marked by both triumphs and controversies in environmental governance. Landmark environmental legislation, such as the Forest Rights Act of 2006, was passed during Singh’s first term. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Act recognized tribal and forest-dwelling populations’ historical rights to forest land and resources, empowering them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Act encompasses Rights of Self-cultivation and Habitation, which are usually regarded as Individual Rights; and Community Rights such as Grazing, Fishing, and access to Water bodies in forests, Habitat Rights for PVTGs, Traditional Seasonal Resource access of Nomadic and Pastoral communities, access to biodiversity, community right to intellectual property and traditional knowledge, recognition of traditional customary rights, and right to protect, regenerate, conserve or manage any community forest resource for sustainable use. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Act also requires the Gram Sabha and rights holders to be responsible for the conservation and protection of biodiversity, wildlife, forests, adjoining catchment areas, water sources, and other ecologically sensitive areas, as well as to put an end to any destructive practices affecting these resources or the tribals’ cultural and natural heritage. The Gram Sabha is also a highly empowered body under the Act, allowing tribal communities to have a significant say in the development of local policies and projects that affect them. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements:

1. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act of 2009 was meant to provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14.

2. The Ministry of Education allowed students in Classes 5 and 8 in central schools, including Kendriya Vidyalayas and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, to be held back if they failed to clear examinations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Ministry of Education recently permitted pupils in Classes 5 and 8 at around 3,000 central schools, including Kendriya Vidyalayas and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, to be held back if they failed to pass tests. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— If the student does not pass the exam the first time, she will be offered the opportunity to retake it within two months. Failure to clear this will result in the student being held back in that class.

— The Centre’s decision comes five years after it modified the Right to Education Act, allowing states and the Centre to decide whether to hold pupils in Classes 5 and 8.

— The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act of 2009 aimed to offer free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen. Section 16 of the Act banned holding or expelling a kid. The statute stated: “No child admitted in a school shall be held back in any class or expelled from school till the completion of elementary education,” that is, through eighth grade. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The idea was that repeating a class could demotivate a youngster and cause her to quit. The ‘no-detention’ provision was intended to ensure that a pupil completes at least primary school without abandoning it. It also considered the potential that a student might have failed an exam due to deficiencies in the education system.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

The term ‘neoantigens’ refers to:

(a) These are proteins that are found only on cancerous cells.

(b) These can be caused by viral infections that lead to transcription and translation errors

(c) These are carbohydrate antigens that are expressed on the surface of red blood cells (RBCs).

(d) These are antigens that have not yet been processed by an APC into smaller parts.

Explanation

— According to reports in Russia’s state-run news agency this week, Russian scientists have produced an mRNA vaccine that has shown the capacity to reduce cancer development and metastasis in preclinical studies.

— According to Russian media sources, the vaccine may be customized, with genetic abnormalities found in under an hour using artificial intelligence (AI).

— “Cancer vaccines have a few different approaches — they can be given in combination with other treatments for better outcomes, or they can be given for maintenance to prevent relapse,” Dr Hasmukh Jain, professor of medical oncology at Tata Memorial Centre in Mumbai, explained.

— Neoantigens are proteins that are found only on cancerous cells, which the body’s immune system can be trained to recognize, thereby allowing the body’s own immune system to fight off the cancer.

— Vaccinating against two pathogens can lessen the occurrence of at least two types of cancer. More than 95% of all cervical cancer cases are caused by chronic infection with certain high-risk HPV strains, indicating that HPV vaccination can significantly reduce cervical cancer incidence.

— Preventing chronic hepatitis B infection with vaccination can also reduce the risk of liver cancer.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 10

Regarding the sudden cardiac arrest and heart attack, consider the following statements:

1. A sudden cardiac arrest is described as a condition where the heart comes to a standstill and loses all its activity due to an irregular heart rhythm while a heart attack is the result of plaque blockages and clotting in arteries that restrict blood flow to the heart, causing muscle scarring.

2. A blockage can cause a sudden cardiac arrest.

3. If the heart attack can change the heart’s electrical impulses, then it could become a trigger for a sudden cardiac arrest.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Rohan Mirchandani, CEO of popular Greek yogurt business Epigamia, died of a sudden heart attack on Saturday (December 21) at the age of 42.

— A sudden cardiac arrest is defined as a situation in which the heart comes to a halt and loses all activity owing to an abnormal heart rhythm, whereas a heart attack is caused by plaque blockages and clotting in arteries that restrict blood flow to the heart, resulting in muscle scarring. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— As a result of these erratic electrical impulses, the heart is unable to pump oxygenated blood to your body. The patient loses consciousness during the first few minutes due to insufficient blood supply to the brain. Within eight minutes, all major organs shut down due to a lack of blood flow.

— A blockage does not cause abrupt cardiac arrest. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— However, if the heart attack alters the heart’s electrical impulses, it may cause a sudden cardiac arrest. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— ECG alterations can swiftly indicate a heart attack. An abrupt cardiac arrest gives you no time at all. A heart attack patient has a better than 90% probability of survival if treated promptly.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Hay-Bunau-Varilla Treaty is related to which of the following events of history?

(a) It was a multilateral agreement attempting to eliminate war as an instrument of national policy.

(b) It was a treaty adopted by more than 100 countries that prohibited the manufacture, transfer, and use of cluster munitions.

(c) It was a peace agreement that ended the Russo-Japanese War.

(d) It established the Panama Canal Zone and the construction of the Panama Canal.

Explanation

— US President-elect Donald Trump on Saturday (December 21) accused Panama of charging excessively for letting US ships use the Panama Canal, the artificial waterway connecting the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.

What is the Panama Canal and why is it significant for the US?

— The construction of the Panama Canal had long been envisioned, simply because moving from one ocean to the other by going around the tip of South America was costly and time-consuming.

— It was built between 1904 and 1914, largely thanks to US efforts. Until then, building a canal was considered difficult due to the region’s uniquely challenging geography. France had previously abandoned similar efforts due to its high costs.

— But that did not deter the United States. President Theodore Roosevelt, in a speech to Congress, said about the project, “No single great material work which remains to be undertaken on this continent… is as of such consequence to the American people.”

— Colombia controlled Panama until 1903 when a US-backed coup helped Panama achieve independence. In exchange, the US received rights to build and operate the canal and permanent rights to the Panama Canal Zone through the Hay-Bunau-Varilla Treaty of 1903.

— However, according to the US government’s Office of the Historian website, the Panamanian representative entered the treaty negotiations without formal consent from his government and had not lived in Panama for 17 years. This led many Panamanians to question the treaty’s validity.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 12

Regarding the 18th biennial State of Forest Report (ISFR-2023) by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), consider the following statements:

1. For the first time, India’s green cover has exceeded the 25% threshold

2. Between 2003 and 2023, dense forests — half the size of Punjab — have disappeared.

Which of the above-given statements is true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The 18th biennial State of Forest Report (ISFR-2023) by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) found a marginal gain of 156 sq km in forest cover and a sizable increase of 1,289 sq km in tree cover since 2021.

— For the first time, India’s green cover has exceeded the 25% threshold with 8,27,357 sq km (25.17%) of the country now under forest (21.76%) and tree (3.41%) cover. Of this, 4,10,175 sq km is classified as dense forests. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— ISFR-2023 shows that 3,913 sq km of dense forests — an area larger than Goa — have disappeared in India in just two years since 2021. (See chart). This is consistent with the worsening trend over the past two decades: 17,500 sq km of dense forests were wiped out between 2013 and 2023, while 7,151 sq km disappeared between 2003 and 2013.

— Overall, India has witnessed the complete destruction of 24,651 sq km — more than 6.3% — of its dense forests in the two decades since 2003. As a single forest unit, that would be nearly half the size of Punjab. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The bulk of this loss has been offset by the rapid transformation of 15,530 sq km of non-forested or scantly forested land to dense or even very dense forests in successive two-year windows during 2003-2023. These are plantations, say experts, because natural forests do not grow this fast.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Government of India’s ‘SVAMITVA’ scheme is related to:

(a) encouragement to employers to create new jobs

(b) property survey and mapping

(c) eradicating bonded labor in India

(d) grant for construction workers to purchase tools

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi has asked all Union ministers to attend the public events to be held to distribute 57 lakh property cards among a dozen states and UTs on December 27, under SVAMITVA, a central sector scheme.

— SVAMITVA, a property survey and mapping scheme, was launched by the Prime Minister on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day on April 24, 2020. and distribution of property cards began on October 11 of that year. So far, 2 crore property cards have been issued, said an official, adding that all households have been covered in several states like Haryana and Uttarakhand. The scheme aims to cover the entire country by the end of the financial year 2025-26.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 14

Prime Minister Narendra Modi was recently awarded the Wisam Mubarak al-Kabeer. It is the highest national award of:

(a) Oman

(b) United Arab Emirates

(c) Qatar

(d) Kuwait

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded the Wisam Mubarak al-Kabeer, or the Order of Mubarak the Great, by Sheikh Meshal Al-Ahmad Al-Jaber Al-Sabah, the Amir of Kuwait, on Sunday (December 22).

— The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer is the highest national award of Kuwait.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Regarding the Ken-Betwa River linking project, consider the following statements:

1. Both rivers are tributaries of Yamuna.

2. It is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers, which was prepared in 1980.

3. The project will involve large-scale deforestation inside the heart of the Bandhavgarh National Park.

Which of the above-given statements is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of the Ken- Betwa River Linking National Project on Wednesday (December 25), on the 100th birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The KBLP envisages transferring water from the Ken river to the Betwa river, both tributaries of the Yamuna. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— It is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for interlinking of rivers, which was prepared in 1980. This plan has 16 projects under its peninsular component, including the KBLP. Apart from this, 14 links are proposed under the Himalayan rivers development plan.

— The river-linking project has faced intense scrutiny for its potential environmental and social impact. The project will involve large-scale deforestation inside the heart of the Panna National Park and Tiger Reserve. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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